The CAPF AC exam is the Union Public Service Commission’s Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination, through which graduates aged 20 to under 25 enter Group A posts in the BSF, CRPF, CISF, ITBP and Sashastra Seema Bal. The 2026 cycle (Notice No. 08/2026-CAPF) had two written papers, a physical standards and efficiency test, a 150-mark interview and a medical standards test, and it admitted both men and women. Everything below comes from that UPSC notice, its press notes and UPSC’s 2027 calendar.
To be plain about what we do: GS India Defence Academy in Dehradun runs SSB and defence-entry preparation. We do not run a dedicated CAPF AC course. The closest graduate-level programme we offer is our CDS coaching in Dehradun, and this guide exists so that a CAPF aspirant can compare the two paths honestly. We are a private academy, not connected with UPSC or any force.
CAPF AC 2026 at a glance
| Point | As stated in the UPSC notice |
|---|---|
| Notice | Examination Notice No. 08/2026-CAPF, dated 20 February 2026 |
| Application window | 20 February to 12 March 2026, 6 pm, online at upsconline.nic.in |
| Written examination | 19 July 2026: Paper I from 10 am to 12 noon, Paper II from 2 pm to 5 pm |
| Tentative vacancies | BSF 108, CRPF 106, ITBP 12, SSB 53, CISF 70; total 349. Ten per cent are earmarked for ex-servicemen. Vacancies can change |
| Who may apply | Male and female candidates |
| Fee | Rs 200; women and SC/ST candidates are exempt |
| Written result | UPSC published the roll numbers of candidates qualified for physical tests on 25 August 2026 |
In this guide, SSB in the table means Sashastra Seema Bal, one of the five forces. It has nothing to do with the Services Selection Board used for the armed forces’ officer entries.
Who is eligible for the CAPF AC exam?
- Age. At least 20 and under 25 on 1 August 2026, which meant born between 2 August 2001 and 1 August 2006. The upper limit relaxes by up to five years for SC and ST candidates, up to three years for OBC candidates who are eligible for reservation, and up to five years for civilian Central Government servants. Ex-servicemen also get the relaxation under the rules the notice cites, and the total relaxation for government service is capped at five years.
- Education. A bachelor’s degree from a recognised university or an equivalent qualification. Candidates who have appeared in the final examination, or who will appear in 2026, were also allowed to apply, but they must show proof of passing within the time the rules prescribe.
- Nationality. An Indian citizen, with provision for subjects of Nepal or Bhutan.
- NCC. The ‘B’ or ‘C’ certificate is desirable and is considered at the interview only.
- Earlier selection. A candidate who has been finally selected for Assistant Commandant in a participating force in an earlier exam cannot appear again.
Use the age rule as a guide to the shape of the cycle. The dates move each year, so work out your own birth window from the notice for the year you apply.
What is the exam pattern?
| Stage | What it tests | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Paper I: General Ability and Intelligence | Objective questions, set in English and Hindi, with negative marking of one third of the marks for each wrong answer | 250 |
| Paper II: General Studies, Essay and Comprehension | Part A is an essay answered in English or Hindi; Part B covers comprehension, précis writing, counter-arguments and simple grammar, in English only | 200 (80 for Part A, 120 for Part B) |
| Physical Standards and Efficiency Tests | Pass or fail, for candidates qualified in the written papers | Qualifying |
| Interview or Personality Test | Held by UPSC for candidates who qualify in the physical tests | 150 |
| Medical Standards Test | For candidates who have appeared in the interview | Qualifying |
Minimum qualifying marks are fixed separately for each paper, and Paper II is marked only for candidates who reach the minimum in Paper I. Final merit comes from the written examination and the interview together, with ties broken in favour of higher written marks, then higher Paper I marks, then the older candidate.
Paper I draws on six areas: general mental ability, including reasoning, quantitative aptitude and data interpretation; general science; current events of national and international importance; Indian polity and economy; history of India, including the freedom movement; and Indian and world geography. Paper II’s essay is expected to touch modern Indian history, geography, polity, economy, security and human rights issues. These are the notice’s own headings, not anyone’s coaching outline.
Physical and medical standards
| Standard | Men | Women |
|---|---|---|
| Minimum height | 165 cm | 157 cm |
| Chest | 81 cm unexpanded, with at least 5 cm expansion | Not applicable |
| Weight | 50 kg minimum | 46 kg minimum |
| 100 metre race | In 16 seconds | In 18 seconds |
| 800 metre race | In 3 minutes 45 seconds | In 4 minutes 45 seconds |
| Long jump | 3.5 metres, three chances | 3.0 metres, three chances |
| Shot put (7.26 kg) | 4.5 metres, three chances | Not applicable |
The medical standards in Appendix V cover eyesight, ears, nose, neck, teeth, skin and general health. Corrected distant vision of 6/6 in the better eye and 6/12 in the worse, or 6/9 in each, is the stated requirement, with limits on myopia and hypermetropia of 4.00 dioptres including cylinder, and colour perception grade III. LASIK is permitted subject to criteria such as age, axial length and a gap of six months after surgery. The notice also sets a tattoo clause. Read Appendix V in full before you apply.
Women candidates give a self-declaration on pregnancy before the physical tests, and the notice describes how a candidate who is pregnant is treated. The physical and medical tests are conducted under a nodal authority appointed by the Ministry of Home Affairs, which for 2026 was Sashastra Seema Bal, and appeals lie only against the medical standards test, to the Appellate Authority designated by the Ministry within 24 hours of the declaration of the detailed medical examination result. Our guide to the SSB medical examination explains how armed forces’ medical procedures differ.
CAPF AC or CDS?
Both are UPSC examinations for graduates, but they lead to different services and use different tests. The CDS (II) 2026 notice lists the following.
| Point | CAPF (ACs) 2026 | CDS (II) 2026 |
|---|---|---|
| Service | Assistant Commandant in BSF, CRPF, CISF, ITBP or Sashastra Seema Bal | Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy, and Officers’ Training Academy |
| Who may apply | Men and women | Men for IMA, INA and AFA; men and women for the OTA courses, which are separate entries |
| Age | 20 to under 25 | 19 to 24 for IMA and INA; 20 to 24 for AFA; 19 to 25 for OTA |
| Written papers | General Ability and Intelligence (250); General Studies, Essay and Comprehension (200) | English, General Knowledge and Elementary Mathematics, 100 each, for IMA, INA and AFA; English and General Knowledge for OTA |
| Personality stage | UPSC interview of 150 marks, after physical efficiency tests | Services Selection Board over several days, worth 300 marks for IMA, INA and AFA and 200 for OTA |
The key difference for a candidate is the personality stage. CAPF uses a UPSC interview after physical tests. CDS uses the Services Selection Board, which is the stage our SSB programme is built for. Our guide to NDA, CDS and AFCAT compares the armed forces’ entries further.
When is the next CAPF AC exam?
UPSC’s programme of examinations for 2027, dated as on 20 May 2026, lists the Central Armed Police Forces (ACs) Examination, 2027 for 4 July 2027. UPSC states that dates in the calendar are liable to alteration, and the notice for the 2027 exam will give the final ones. Watch UPSC’s site rather than relying on a secondary page, and read Appendix V before you decide to apply. If you want to talk through whether to prepare for CAPF, CDS or both, we offer free counselling by phone or WhatsApp on +91 70170 31757.
Sources for this guide
- UPSC: CAPF (Assistant Commandants) Examination 2026, Examination Notice No. 08/2026-CAPF
- UPSC: press note on e-admit cards for CAPF 2026, 10 July 2026
- UPSC: press note on the written result of CAPF 2026, 25 August 2026
- UPSC: programme of examinations 2027 (CAPF (ACs) Examination, 2027)
- UPSC: Combined Defence Services Examination (II) 2026 notice (for the CDS comparison)
Frequently asked questions
FAQs
Questions parents ask us.
Can't find yours? Ask on WhatsApp; a counsellor usually replies within working hours.
Ask on WhatsAppWhat is the CAPF AC exam?
It is the UPSC's Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination for graduates, covering posts in the BSF, CRPF, CISF, ITBP and Sashastra Seema Bal.
What is the age limit for CAPF AC?
In 2026 a candidate had to be at least 20 and under 25 on 1 August 2026, with relaxations of up to five years for SC and ST candidates and up to three years for eligible OBC candidates.
What is the exam pattern of CAPF AC?
Paper I is objective General Ability and Intelligence for 250 marks. Paper II is General Studies, Essay and Comprehension for 200 marks. Then come physical tests, a 150-mark interview and a medical.
What are the physical standards for CAPF AC?
In the 2026 notice, men needed a height of 165 cm, a chest of 81 cm unexpanded with 5 cm expansion and a weight of 50 kg; women needed a height of 157 cm and a weight of 46 kg.
Is there a negative mark in CAPF Paper I?
Yes. The notice sets a penalty of one third of the marks assigned to a question for each wrong answer. Unanswered questions carry no penalty.
Does GS India Defence Academy offer CAPF coaching?
No. We run SSB and defence-entry preparation, and we do not have a dedicated CAPF AC course. Our CDS coaching is the closest graduate-level programme.
If your goal is an armed forces commission rather than a CAPF post, our CDS coaching in Dehradun and SSB training in Dehradun are built for it, with separate hostels and a mess for boys and girls. Call +91 70170 31757 or message us on WhatsApp for batch dates.
Admissions





